Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on pulmonary disease.
A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of mucus. She mentions a history of recurrent 'sinus infections' over the past year, often treated with antibiotics. She has recently felt lightheaded on standing. On examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. Blood tests performed last week show haemoglobin 85 g/L (reference range 120-150), MCV 72 fL (reference range 80-100), and normal white cell count and platelet count. Spirometry performed concurrently shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 (predicted >0.70) with partial reversibility after bronchodilator. Considering the clinical presentation and investigations, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
A patient with community-acquired pneumonia has a CURB-65 score of 3. What is the most appropriate management setting?
A 70-year-old man with severe COPD (FEV1 30% predicted), on triple inhaled therapy and supplemental oxygen, presents with a 3-day history of increased dyspnoea, productive cough with purulent sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. He denies fever or chest pain. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (RR 24), saturating 88% on 2 L/min oxygen, with diffuse wheeze and prolonged expiration. His chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no new infiltrates. His arterial blood gas on 2 L/min oxygen shows pH 7.32, pCO2 68 mmHg, pO2 55 mmHg, bicarbonate 35 mmol/L. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?
A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 57-year-old lady with a chronic cough, a 35 pack-year smoking history, and breathlessness with daily tasks has had spirometry done. What is the likely interpretation of the spirometry results?
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Chest X-ray shows apical infiltrates. Sputum smear for AFB is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 72-year-old man presents to the clinic with progressive shortness of breath and a chronic cough producing white sputum. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and worked in construction for most of his life. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and crackles at the lung bases. A chest X-ray shows diffuse reticular opacities, particularly at the lung bases. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 40-year-old man presents with fever, pleuritic chest pain, and cough. A chest X-ray shows a pleural effusion. What is the next step in management?
A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 70-year-old woman with a history of diabetes presents with fever, cough, and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 72-year-old retired builder with a 50 pack-year smoking history presents with a 3-month history of worsening cough, occasional streaks of blood in sputum, and unintentional weight loss of 6 kg. He reports mild dyspnoea on exertion, able to climb one flight of stairs before needing to rest. On examination, he is thin but alert, with an ECOG performance status of 1. Chest auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds over the right upper zone. A chest X-ray shows a 4.5 cm spiculated mass in the right upper lobe. There is no obvious pleural effusion or mediastinal widening. Full blood count, electrolytes, liver function tests, and renal function tests are within normal limits, except for a haemoglobin of 115 g/L. Spirometry shows FEV1 65% predicted, FVC 80% predicted, FEV1/FVC ratio 0.7.
A 68-year-old former smoker with a 30 pack-year history presents to their GP with a 2-month history of persistent cough and increasing fatigue, noting a 3kg unintentional weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable, and vital signs are stable. Routine blood tests, including full blood count and inflammatory markers, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. Subsequent PET-CT imaging is performed as part of the diagnostic workup. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided in the context of this patient's presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
What is the recommended initial antibiotic regimen for severe community-acquired pneumonia in an Australian adult requiring ICU admission?
A 28-year-old female, recently emigrated from Southeast Asia, presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fatigue, a persistent low-grade fever (37.8°C), and a non-productive cough that has been present for approximately one month. She denies any significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished breath sounds in the upper right lobe, but is otherwise unremarkable. Initial blood work, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a suspicious lesion in the right upper lobe, prompting a PET-CT scan, an axial slice of which is shown. Given the patient's history, clinical presentation, and the findings on the PET-CT scan, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history. A chest PET-CT was performed as part of her workup. The axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management, considering the image and her presentation?
For preterm neonate with RDS, when is surfactant most effective?
A 62-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath over the past two days. He reports a productive cough with greenish sputum and denies chest pain. On examination, he is using accessory muscles to breathe, has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, and his heart rate is 105 bpm. Auscultation of the chest reveals diffuse wheezing and decreased breath sounds bilaterally. An arterial blood gas analysis shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and PaO2 60 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 28-year-old immunocompetent patient presents with a chronic cough and low-grade fever. Initial investigations, including sputum microscopy, are negative. A PET-CT scan was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough. He works as a construction worker and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest reveals reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, chills, and a productive cough with greenish sputum. She has a history of asthma and is currently on inhaled corticosteroids. On examination, her temperature is 38.5°C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute. Auscultation of the chest reveals wheezing and crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows consolidation in the right lower lobe. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic therapy for this patient, considering her asthma and current presentation?
A 30-year-old woman presents with fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats. A chest X-ray shows a round lesion with an air-fluid level. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 65-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath for 3 days. On examination, he has crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 30-year-old recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for 2 months. Sputum cultures are negative for acid-fast bacilli. A PET-CT scan was performed, and an image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 68-year-old man with known severe COPD presents with a 3-day history of increased cough, purulent sputum, and worsening dyspnoea. He uses salbutamol more frequently. On examination, he is afebrile, respiratory rate 24, SpO2 90% on air. Scattered wheezes are heard. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 60-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. On examination, she has fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest shows reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?
A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 70-80 year old lady, currently managed for pulmonary embolism with Enoxaparin 40 mg daily, is found to have multiple pulmonary emboli. Her vitals are within normal limits. What would be the most appropriate next step?
A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough and shortness of breath. He is a non-smoker and works as a carpenter. On examination, there are bilateral inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. A chest X-ray shows reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lobes. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 35-year-old male presents with hemoptysis and weight loss. PET-CT is shown. Bronchoscopy with biopsy is MOST likely to reveal which of the following?
A 70-year-old man with severe COPD (FEV1 35%) presents with increased cough, purulent sputum, and dyspnoea over 48 hours. He uses salbutamol PRN and tiotropium daily. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no new consolidation. What is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
A patient presents with severe community-acquired pneumonia. Which initial investigation is most crucial for guiding immediate management?
A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and a persistent dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, for which she takes methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, weight loss, or night sweats. On examination, she has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Her oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. A chest X-ray shows reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lung zones. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern with reduced diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 32-year-old male, originally from a high-TB prevalence country, presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough for the past 3 weeks, night sweats, and a 5 kg weight loss. He denies any fever or shortness of breath. Physical examination reveals normal breath sounds bilaterally, with no wheezes or crackles. His vital signs are stable: temperature 37.2°C, heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. A chest X-ray was initially interpreted as showing a possible lung mass, prompting further investigation with a PET-CT scan, the axial view of which is shown. Sputum samples have been sent for microscopy and culture, but results are pending. Given the clinical presentation and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 65-year-old patient with a history of DVT presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. Examination is unremarkable except for mild tachypnoea. Wells score is 4. Which initial investigation is most appropriate in the diagnostic pathway?
A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes aspirin daily. An X-ray is performed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He also reports a persistent cough that has recently become productive of blood-streaked sputum. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. He recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, he is febrile and has bilateral crackles in the upper lung fields. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease presents with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and pleuritic chest pain. On examination, temperature is 38.2°C, HR 105, BP 130/80, RR 22, SpO2 93% on air. Crackles are heard over the right lower lung field. Which initial investigation is most crucial for guiding management?
For severe community-acquired pneumonia requiring ICU admission, which adjunctive therapy is recommended?
A 45-year-old male, who recently immigrated from India, presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of progressive fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent night sweats. He denies any cough, chest pain, or shortness of breath. He has no significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, including a temperature of 37.1°C, and clear breath sounds bilaterally. However, mild cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are unremarkable. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe, which prompts a PET-CT scan for further evaluation. An axial slice from the PET-CT is shown. Given the patient's clinical presentation, immigration history, and the PET-CT findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis?
A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?
A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of worsening cough, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history and worked in construction for 20 years. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and decreased breath sounds in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
66-year-old man, smoker with mild COPD, on salbutamol and tiotropium, confused regarding usage. Back for GPMP. Care plan?
A 35-year-old male presents with a two-month history of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a persistent dry cough. He denies fever or night sweats. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-day history of cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. The child has a fever of 38.5°C and a runny nose. On examination, the child appears in mild respiratory distress with nasal flaring and intercostal retractions. Auscultation reveals diffuse wheezing and crackles throughout the lung fields. The child has no significant past medical history and is up to date with vaccinations. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no focal consolidation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 7-year history of chronic cough productive of copious, often purulent, sputum, particularly noticeable in the mornings. She reports requiring 4-5 courses of antibiotics annually for exacerbations of her 'chronic bronchitis'. She is a non-smoker and has no significant past medical history other than childhood measles complicated by pneumonia. On examination, she has scattered coarse crackles bilaterally at the lung bases. Her oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Spirometry performed 3 months ago showed FEV1 78% predicted, FVC 85% predicted, FEV1/FVC 0.75. A recent chest X-ray was reported as showing 'mild peribronchial thickening'. Given the clinical suspicion, what is the single most appropriate next investigation to establish the diagnosis?
A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents with acute shortness of breath. INR is 5.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?
A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset dyspnea. His INR is 6.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and worse with inspiration. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and is currently on warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is elevated, and she has clear lung fields on auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?