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pulmonary disease

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on pulmonary disease.

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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Start a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in 3 months
D. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
E. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A patient with community-acquired pneumonia has a CURB-65 score of 3. What is the most appropriate management setting?

A. Outpatient management
B. Outpatient management with daily review
C. Intensive care unit
D. Inpatient management on a general medical ward
E. Inpatient management, considering higher level care
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A 70-year-old man with severe COPD (FEV1 30% predicted), on triple inhaled therapy and supplemental oxygen, presents with a 3-day history of increased dyspnoea, productive cough with purulent sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. He denies fever or chest pain. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (RR 24), saturating 88% on 2 L/min oxygen, with diffuse wheeze and prolonged expiration. His chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no new infiltrates. His arterial blood gas on 2 L/min oxygen shows pH 7.32, pCO2 68 mmHg, pO2 55 mmHg, bicarbonate 35 mmol/L. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Initiate non-invasive ventilation
B. Prescribe oral antibiotics
C. Administer intravenous corticosteroids
D. Increase supplemental oxygen flow rate
E. Perform a bronchoscopy
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of a persistent cough and shortness of breath. She has no significant past medical history and is a non-smoker. On examination, she has bilateral wheezing and reduced breath sounds. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation of the lungs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Asthma
C. Heart failure
D. Pneumonia
E. Pulmonary embolism
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A 57-year-old lady with a chronic cough, a 35 pack-year smoking history, and breathlessness with daily tasks has had spirometry done. What is the likely interpretation of the spirometry results?

A. Normal spirometry
B. Mod OAD, no reversibility.
C. Severe obstructive airway disease, with reversibility.
D. Restrictive pattern
E. Mild OAD, no reversibility.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing dyspnea. He has a history of GORD. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication.
B. Prescribe prokinetic agents to improve gastric emptying.
C. Initiate a trial of PPI therapy and lifestyle modifications.
D. Order a barium swallow study to further evaluate the anatomy.
E. Perform an upper endoscopy to assess for complications.
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A 45-year-old man presents with chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Chest X-ray shows apical infiltrates. Sputum smear for AFB is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Perform a bronchoscopy with lavage.
B. Order a CT scan of the chest.
C. Start empirical anti-tuberculosis treatment.
D. Discharge with symptomatic treatment and review.
E. Repeat sputum smear and culture, including nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT).
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A 72-year-old man presents to the clinic with progressive shortness of breath and a chronic cough producing white sputum. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and worked in construction for most of his life. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and crackles at the lung bases. A chest X-ray shows diffuse reticular opacities, particularly at the lung bases. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Asbestosis
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe antitussives
B. Repeat sputum AFB
C. Start empiric antibiotics
D. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
E. Initiate isoniazid prophylaxis
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What is the recommended initial antibiotic regimen for severe community-acquired pneumonia in an Australian adult requiring ICU admission?

A. Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin
B. Azithromycin monotherapy
C. Ciprofloxacin monotherapy
D. Doxycycline monotherapy
E. Amoxicillin
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed bacterial pneumonia
B. Initiate a four-drug anti-tuberculosis regimen
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
D. Start a course of oral corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
E. Order a bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female, recently emigrated from Southeast Asia, presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fatigue, a persistent low-grade fever (37.8°C), and a non-productive cough that has been present for approximately one month. She denies any significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished breath sounds in the upper right lobe, but is otherwise unremarkable. Initial blood work, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a suspicious lesion in the right upper lobe, prompting a PET-CT scan, an axial slice of which is shown. Given the patient's history, clinical presentation, and the findings on the PET-CT scan, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover community-acquired pneumonia.
B. Order a CT-guided needle biopsy of the lesion.
C. Start empiric treatment with isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol (HRZE).
D. Refer the patient to a pulmonologist for bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage.
E. Initiate sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smears and cultures.
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A 68-year-old man with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and known secondary pulmonary hypertension presents with increasing dyspnoea and peripheral oedema. His arterial blood gas on room air shows pH 7.31, PaCO2 68 mmHg, PaO2 48 mmHg, and SaO2 80%. His chest X-ray shows hyperinflation and prominent pulmonary arteries. Which of the following interventions is most likely to acutely decrease his pulmonary vascular resistance?

A. Application of positive pressure ventilation with high PEEP
B. Administration of inhaled bronchodilators
C. Administration of supplemental oxygen
D. Initiation of intravenous diuretic therapy
E. Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation
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A 50-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a routine check. He has a history of smoking and lives in a remote community. What screening is most important to address his increased risk?

A. Cardiovascular risk assessment and diabetes screening
B. Glaucoma screening
C. Prostate cancer screening
D. Vitamin D deficiency screening
E. Osteoporosis screening
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 58-year-old non-smoker presents with a 4-month history of intermittent fever, night sweats, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of sputum. He recently emigrated from a region with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. Physical examination is unremarkable. Chest X-ray reveals a solitary nodule in the right upper lobe. A PET-CT scan is performed as part of the investigation. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided in the context of this patient's presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Manage conservatively with serial chest X-rays
B. Repeat the PET-CT scan in three months
C. Obtain tissue diagnosis via bronchoscopy or CT-guided biopsy
D. Arrange for surgical resection of the nodule
E. Initiate empirical treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis
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A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is a current smoker. On examination, he is tachypneic and has decreased breath sounds on the right side. A chest X-ray reveals a large right-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Start intravenous antibiotics
B. Insert a chest tube
C. Perform needle decompression
D. Administer high-flow oxygen
E. Order a CT scan of the chest
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history. A chest PET-CT was performed as part of her workup. The axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management, considering the image and her presentation?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Referral for surgical resection
C. Initiate a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
D. Empiric antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia
E. Repeat PET-CT in 3 months
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For preterm neonate with RDS, when is surfactant most effective?

A. Prophylactically
B. After sepsis ruled out
C. After 24 hours
D. Early, within hours
E. Only if FiO2 > 0.8
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A 62-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath over the past two days. He reports a productive cough with greenish sputum and denies chest pain. On examination, he is using accessory muscles to breathe, has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, and his heart rate is 105 bpm. Auscultation of the chest reveals diffuse wheezing and decreased breath sounds bilaterally. An arterial blood gas analysis shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and PaO2 60 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
B. Provide supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Administer intravenous corticosteroids
D. Administer a bronchodilator nebulizer treatment
E. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old immunocompetent patient presents with a chronic cough and low-grade fever. Initial investigations, including sputum microscopy, are negative. A PET-CT scan was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Empiric antibiotic therapy
C. Referral for surgical resection
D. Repeat sputum cultures
E. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of persistent cough and occasional wheezing. She has a history of asthma, which has been well-controlled with inhaled corticosteroids. She denies any recent respiratory infections or changes in her medication. On examination, her vital signs are normal, and there are scattered wheezes on auscultation. Spirometry shows a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio that improves significantly after bronchodilator administration. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Increase the dose of inhaled corticosteroids
B. Start oral corticosteroids
C. Refer for allergy testing
D. Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
E. Prescribe a leukotriene receptor antagonist
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A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough. He works as a construction worker and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest reveals reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Asbestosis
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer intravenous antibiotics for possible aspiration pneumonia
B. Prescribe a short course of oral corticosteroids for COPD exacerbation
C. Order a barium swallow study to assess esophageal motility
D. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and schedule an upper endoscopy
E. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
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A 30-year-old woman presents with fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats. A chest X-ray shows a round lesion with an air-fluid level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Lung cancer
E. Lung abscess
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A 65-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath for 3 days. On examination, he has crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Community-acquired pneumonia
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 30-year-old recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for 2 months. Sputum cultures are negative for acid-fast bacilli. A PET-CT scan was performed, and an image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Repeat sputum cultures in one week
B. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
C. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
E. Start the patient on corticosteroids
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. On examination, she has fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest shows reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Interstitial lung disease secondary to rheumatoid arthritis
E. Pneumonia
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild scattered rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are negative for acid-fast bacilli. A PET-CT scan of the chest is performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Schedule a follow-up chest X-ray in 6 weeks to monitor for changes
B. Repeat sputum cultures for acid-fast bacilli with liquid media
C. Order a bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy of the lesion
D. Initiate a multi-drug anti-tuberculosis therapy regimen
E. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed bacterial pneumonia
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD managed with occasional antacids. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical consultation for consideration of hiatal hernia repair
B. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and reassess in 4 weeks
C. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
D. Prescribe prokinetic agents to improve gastric emptying
E. Order an upper endoscopy to evaluate for esophagitis
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?

A. Gastric malignancy
B. Esophageal dysmotility
C. Reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone
D. Aortic aneurysm
E. Pneumonia
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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung cancer
E. Sarcoidosis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents with hemoptysis and weight loss. PET-CT is shown. Bronchoscopy with biopsy is MOST likely to reveal which of the following?

A. Adenocarcinoma in situ
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Granulomatous inflammation with caseous necrosis
D. Small cell carcinoma
E. Mesothelioma
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. High-resolution CT chest
C. Barium swallow study
D. Referral for surgical assessment and repair
E. Urgent cardiac catheterisation
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A patient presents with severe community-acquired pneumonia. Which initial investigation is most crucial for guiding immediate management?

A. Blood cultures
B. Sputum culture
C. Full blood count
D. Chest X-ray
E. Arterial blood gas
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A 65-year-old patient with a history of DVT presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. Examination is unremarkable except for mild tachypnoea. Wells score is 4. Which initial investigation is most appropriate in the diagnostic pathway?

A. D-dimer
B. Lower limb ultrasound
C. V/Q scan
D. CT Pulmonary Angiogram (CTPA)
E. Chest X-ray
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes aspirin daily. An X-ray is performed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a H2 receptor antagonist
B. Order a barium swallow study
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Perform an upper endoscopy
E. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
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A 60-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and lives in a remote community. Which screening is MOST important, considering higher prevalence in this population?

A. PSA
B. Mammography
C. Albuminuria
D. Colonoscopy
E. Thyroid function tests
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A 68-year-old man with moderate COPD (FEV1 55%) on a LAMA reports persistent breathlessness (mMRC 2) and one moderate exacerbation requiring oral steroids last year. What is the most appropriate next step in maintenance therapy?

A. Add an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS).
B. Increase the dose of the current LAMA.
C. Switch LAMA to a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA).
D. Add a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as regular therapy.
E. Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA).
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A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease presents with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and pleuritic chest pain. On examination, temperature is 38.2°C, HR 105, BP 130/80, RR 22, SpO2 93% on air. Crackles are heard over the right lower lung field. Which initial investigation is most crucial for guiding management?

A. Arterial blood gas
B. Blood cultures
C. Full blood count and C-reactive protein
D. Sputum culture and sensitivity
E. Chest X-ray
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For severe community-acquired pneumonia requiring ICU admission, which adjunctive therapy is recommended?

A. High-dose Vitamin C
B. IV Immunoglobulin
C. Prophylactic Antifungals
D. Corticosteroids
E. Nebulised Saline
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 45-year-old male, who recently immigrated from India, presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of progressive fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent night sweats. He denies any cough, chest pain, or shortness of breath. He has no significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, including a temperature of 37.1°C, and clear breath sounds bilaterally. However, mild cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are unremarkable. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe, which prompts a PET-CT scan for further evaluation. An axial slice from the PET-CT is shown. Given the patient's clinical presentation, immigration history, and the PET-CT findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis?

A. Bronchoscopy with transbronchial needle aspiration of the lesion
B. Administer a purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test
C. Order a CT-guided percutaneous needle biopsy of the lung nodule
D. Repeat PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
E. Initiate empiric antibiotic therapy with a broad-spectrum antibiotic
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of worsening cough, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history and worked in construction for 20 years. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and decreased breath sounds in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order sputum cytology
B. Perform a PET scan
C. Refer for bronchoscopy
D. Obtain a CT scan of the chest
E. Start empirical antibiotics
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66-year-old man, smoker with mild COPD, on salbutamol and tiotropium, confused regarding usage. Back for GPMP. Care plan?

A. Recommend zoster and pneumococcal vaccines.
B. Increase salbutamol dose.
C. Advise to cut down on smoking.
D. Recommend flu, COVID, and pneumococcal vaccines.
E. Refer for pulmonary function tests.
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents with a two-month history of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a persistent dry cough. He denies fever or night sweats. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Repeat PET-CT in 3 months
B. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
C. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
D. Empiric antibiotic therapy
E. Sputum culture for bacterial pathogens
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A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-day history of cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. The child has a fever of 38.5°C and a runny nose. On examination, the child appears in mild respiratory distress with nasal flaring and intercostal retractions. Auscultation reveals diffuse wheezing and crackles throughout the lung fields. The child has no significant past medical history and is up to date with vaccinations. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no focal consolidation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Foreign body aspiration
B. Asthma
C. Croup
D. Bronchiolitis
E. Pneumonia
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Adult with suspected aspiration pneumonia. Initial antibiotic?

A. Doxycycline
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Azithromycin
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents with acute shortness of breath. INR is 5.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A. Pneumonia
B. Anticoagulation-related bleeding
C. Heart failure exacerbation
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset dyspnea. His INR is 6.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Administer IV vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
B. Observe and repeat imaging in 24 hours
C. Perform needle thoracostomy
D. Administer IV protamine sulfate
E. Administer IV furosemide
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A 72-year-old man presents with 4 weeks of shortness of breath (SOB), shoulder pain, weight loss, cervical lymphadenopathy, and finger clubbing. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Lung cancer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Lymphoma
E. Sarcoidosis
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and worse with inspiration. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and is currently on warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is elevated, and she has clear lung fields on auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pericarditis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Aortic dissection
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